Hello everyone. I have a completely hypothetical question that I have been debating with friends. Due to strong arguments both for and against without a clear consensus, I feel it may be beyond our expertise as armchair lawyers and as such, I am pleased to present this to the greater community.
While this is a broad hypothetical, there are a few specific details that must be outlined for the sake of the argument:
\- The victim would be a clear, undeniable foreign adversary/hostile nation to the US
\- There is no direct conflict with or collateral damage to US interests or allies(as a result of the ransomware being deployed)
\- The individual would meticulously report all income from the ransomware payouts on Schedule 1, Line 8z of the IRS Form 1040, pleading the Fifth Amendment on the source of the income, and then pay their 37% top marginal tax rate(They make sure to pay Uncle Sam his cut and avoid committing tax fraud/evasion).
That being said, I want to note: I am **NOT** asking if the frameworks and legal statues to charge a person for this exist. They absolutely do.
The question is if the US citizen would be prosecuted and/or convicted if the victim is unable/unwilling to cooperate with a US court, there is no conflict with US interests, and they even pay taxes on the income.
Thanks and looking forward to any and all answers!
Disclaimer: Do not attempt this at home. Side effects may range from blacked out SUV’s parked outside your house to being arrested/murdered by a foreign intelligence service.
submitted by /u/wohgol[link] [comments]